Dr. Phil's tweet on Aug. 20 has caused an uproar in the media. He tweeted:
“If a girl is drunk, is it OK to have sex with her? Reply yes or no to @drphil #teensaccused”
After his followers (and others) vented they were offended by his curiosity, the tweet from Dr. Phil's twitter account was promptly deleted.
It is common knowledge not to take advantage of anyone under the influence: It is also against the law. The question then would be irrelevant if it was interpreted in that context (too stupid for an answer) or Dr. Phil needs to take remedial academic courses.
Therefore, the question Dr. Phil posed on twitter could have been exaggerated by the word 'drunk.' It is possible he was going for the 'shock effect' from the followers to receive mass media exposure for sufficient replies. It is also possible Dr. Phil is venturing into the definition of the word 'drunk.'
When a 'girl' drinks, how many drinks does it take to disregard her consent to have sex? If she has only one drink but claims she is not drunk and initiates a sexual encounter, does that make it “ok?” How does a person know when the consent is inappropriate if it appears the potential partner is just tipsy? Should the laws be changed to state anyone with any alcohol, however miniscule, be considered 'too drunk' to consent to have sex?
Good questions ...
It could be Dr. Phil was directing his question to the topic of 'any' drink and to question the definition of being drunk. Dr. Phil has not issued a statement at this time on his poorly worded, offensive tweet. We are still waiting on his interpretation.
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